Talk:सीदति

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Latest comment: 2 years ago by Bhagadatta
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Anyone know why this isn't sī́ḍati/sī́ḷati? User:AryamanA User:RichardW57 User:Bhagadatta User:Kutchkutch Hölderlin2019 (talk) 21:28, 15 August 2021 (UTC)Reply

User:SodhakSH Hölderlin2019 (talk) 21:28, 15 August 2021 (UTC)Reply

I don't think it's known. It's been suggested that the dropping of the second sibilant with compensatory lengthening was an Indo-Iranian matter, and so there was no occasion for the /d/ to become retroflex. The corresponding Avestan form also lacks (any trace of) a second sibilant. This suggestion comes from Ryan Sandell's 2018 paper https://brill.com/downloadpdf/journals/ieul/6/1/article-p117_4.xml --RichardW57 (talk) 00:29, 16 August 2021 (UTC)Reply
@Hölderlin2019: The Avestan form is (𐬥𐬌𐬱-)𐬵𐬌𐬜𐬀𐬌𐬙𐬌 ((niš-)hiδaiti) so it's very likely that *síždati was not the most recent common ancestor of the two words. It's some unexplained development within PIIr. -- 𝓑𝓱𝓪𝓰𝓪𝓭𝓪𝓽𝓽𝓪(𝓽𝓪𝓵𝓴) 09:29, 16 August 2021 (UTC)Reply