Talk:ვეშაპი

Vahag, have you heard of anything about phonetic changes? Also, the article i have mentioned in a summary, is not biased (free to acknowledge Armenian & Persian derivations) at all but rather even credible (it is based on books etc.)

Regards.--Dixtosa_HERE IT IS xD_ 11:37, 23 September 2012 (UTC)

Phonetic changes are not arbitrary. There is no phonetic law which changes Middle Iranian i into Georgian e. Derivation via Armenian vēšap explains the change. I looked at Chkheidze's article; I think it's good and you can of course use it, preferably linking to it in the References, when the spam filter is fixed. By the way, I don't have an agenda here, I don't care how many Georgian words are derived from Armenian. I only care about the accuracy of the entries. --Vahag (talk) 12:45, 23 September 2012 (UTC)

This is exactly what I care about too.

OK, then how do you explain a forming of *վէշապ (vēšap)? Regardless of how you do, that can fit to direct-derivation theory.

է is e not ē, is it?--Dixtosa_HERE IT IS xD_ 13:04, 23 September 2012 (UTC)

*վէշապ (vēšap) was, according to Ačaryan, borrowed from Parthian *vēšāp. It is possible that Georgian was directly borrowed from Parthian. But because the Parthian form is not attested (nor is Middle Persian wišāp, as far as I can see) this is all uncertain; it is best to use generic language, i.e. "borrowed from Iranian, compare this and that". Things will be more clear when this book is published. I'm sure Asatrian will also treat Armenian and Georgian borrowings. --Vahag (talk) 13:33, 23 September 2012 (UTC)