Talk:beastly

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Latest comment: 5 months ago by 50.225.219.18 in topic UK only?
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UK only?[edit]

Why are senses 1 through 3 listed as UK? Looking at Merriam Webster's citation for "beastly", it quotes an American scientist (in a usage equivalent to sense 1) and an American sportswriter (in a usage equivalent to sense 3). Google's Ngram viewer puts the word at .00005% for AmE and .00007% for Br, a difference of prevalence maybe, but not the kind of order-of-magnitude difference you'd expect for a term tagged "UK".

As it currently reads, our definition suggest that Americans nearly only use the term "beastly" to mean "powerful", or as an adverb. We don't really mean that, do we? 50.225.219.18 21:20, 14 December 2023 (UTC)Reply