Talk:मत

@AryamanA A derivation from मा (for the Hindi) seems somewhat lacking. I personally always thought the term was of Persian origin, and مه (the 6th etym) does exist, as well as مـ. What do you think? DerekWinters (talk) 04:33, 24 January 2018 (UTC)

@DerekWinters: The existence of , which is (according to CDIAL) some sort of "adverbial extension" of Sanskrit मा (mā), is enough to convince me that the etymology is right. Also, Masica says:

Sanskrit did have an additional "prohibitive" or "precative" particle, ma, used in negative commands and some other contexts. It survives (H.P. mat, S. ma, K. mā, maṭɨ, G. mā) mainly in the center and west; in the Eastern and Southern languages other devices have evolved. It usually precedes the verb, except in Gujarati, where according to Cardona it always follows (Savel'eva 1965 has a counterexample, however)

—Aryaman^{A (मुझसे बात करें • योगदान)} 12:53, 24 January 2018 (UTC)

Oh interesting, thanks! DerekWinters (talk) 23:14, 24 January 2018 (UTC)